Earlier in the week, E. Volokh wrote a piece arguing that corporation should have something like the full panoply of Constitutional rights. In particular, corporations should have full First Amendment rights, due process rights etc. The substantive argument is that corporations are really just groups of individuals and in the absence of the Constitutional rights, the individuals would be unable (or it would be much more difficult for them) to accomplish their ends. Corporations are just a group of people who designate another smaller group to act on behalf of the larger. The piece is well-done, rhetorically. But it is grounded in conflation and a kind of confusion. (It is also curious in that it amounts to a justification for divestment programs and boycotts of businesses on political or other ideological grounds. Not inconsistent, because Volokh is not really a political conservative -- but his argument is adopted political conservatives for whom divestiture and boycott are troubling, if not anathema.)
While corporations are associations, there is no good reason to think that associations should be understood as corporations. Nor is there reason to think it particularly difficult to distinguish among associations or among corporations. We have lots of different kinds of corporations, and many more kinds of associations. Denial of First Amendment rights to commercial corporations does not have any particular implication for other sorts of associations, whether or not one thinks the association rights reduce to member rights. There are many models of informal associations which effectively project the opinions of adherents, without invocation corporate form. Boycotts, for example. As we have single purpose corporations, and corporations with limited lives and limited purposes, and a host of foundations and kinds of non-profits, it is difficult to see why they should all be conflated to a single model, represented by business corporations.
At the same time, it is inaccurate to describe the political activities of commercial corporations as representative of the views of ownership, or to suggest the political activities reflect anything like a plausible delegation of decisionmaking on the topic. Set aside the many arguments to the end that ownership should focus on return, or that managerial decisions ought not be available to review or direction by ownership, although I think they would eventually have to be addressed by V. Look instead for now at the argument that management of commercial corporations can be said to reflect ownership preferences on political issues or to have received some sort of delegation from ownership. Where would prospective owners gain information about the political views of the directors and senior management? When is that put up for the shareholders? How is it reflected in stock pricing? What the reasoning that suggests that when commercial corporations speak on political issues they do anything other than amplify the preferences of individuals who constitute management? I would be interested in seeing the studies.
Which returns to the claim that admiting that GM's First Amendment rights are not very important tells us nothing much about the ACLU or RNC or NRA, or NYT. Otherwise, V. should be arguing that there cannot be legitimate constraints on any association activity -- i.e., there is no basis for distinguishing among associations such as non-profits, etc. That may be, but I have not seen an argument to that point.
A final point -- we already deny commercial corporations lots of speech. Regulation of fraud, for example, limitations on representations of causal effects, requirements of truth telling in connection with issuance of securities. That is all a bit different from rights of persons -- V. can expound all he likes about the value of laetrile, but SmithKline cannot. I am not sure how that sort of line can be drawn if we do not accept that commercial corporations have quite limited rights of this kind.
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