Prof. Kerr comments on my remarks concerning Volokh on religion and political argument:
What is your support for the claim that the political community is founded on essentially secular grounds, such that religious arguments are not legitimate? Is that a descriptive, historical claim? Is it an argument about the Constitution? The Establishment Clause? The Enlightenment? Or is that a normative claim? Your argument seems to hinge on this assumption, but many people disagree with it and (as best I can tell) you have not provided any basis for it.
Kerr makes a very good point (actually, several of
them). I could dodge by saying I was
just trying to lay out the argument for concern about explicitly religious
political argument, and did not endorse it, but that would hardly be
true. I was, but I also think
something like it is right, and so was advocating as well. So, to answer Kerr’s points:
(1) An historical
case can be made (for those thinking that original political commitments are
decisive). Although there is no serious
doubt that the country and its political leadership did not have any developed
wholly secular political theory, it is also the case that there is a good
argument that the views are fundamentally deist, and so do not invoke biblical
foundations. I should add immediately
that the case is hardly decisive, and the evidence, as I understand it, is
quite muddled. There is nothing
unreasonable about rejecting my interpretation of the historical point, however.
The historical point is important in relation to the degree
one is committed to originalist political theory as controlling legitimate
political engagements. Within the
context of Constitutional law, originalism in various forms has a good deal of
attraction, a good deal to be said for itself. It is, however, unclear why one’s approach to interpretation of the
Constitution should have any special role to play in determining the bounds of
legitimate political discourse, which is not, after all, legal argument.
Finally, on this point, I do not think the historical
question is either decisive or even very important. I think the argument can and should run
independent of the settled views of historians about the founding
population. It is more properly a
problem within liberal political theory as theory, which I turn to below. Hence, the fairly narrow range of tolerated
religious views at the founding is not a matter I think significant, but it is
a potential problem for those who believe that legitimate political argument is
tied to history.
(2) The argument
against direct religious political argument does not have to have an historical
foundation (i.e., it does not have to be an account of originalist political
theory). I take the question to be
directed at the bounds of legitimate political engagement for those now in this
liberal political democracy. For present
purposes, I think that is fundamentally a normative question. (Pretty plainly political argument in fact is
directly based on religious sources, which has led to the question of
propriety.) I think the aim is to
provide a foundation for argument that the actions of the state are, in some
non-prudential sense, binding. For that
to happen, the grounds of decision-making need to connect to common sources of
authority. Those lie, I think, very near
the surface of things, not deep. To the
extent feasible, political argument should tie to those kinds of grounds, i.e.,
to grounds which are open to agreement by contending factions without the
necessity of abandoning their respective fundamental moral beliefs. All of which is a somewhat inarticulate
Rawlsian account.
I do think that such an account of political relations flows
out of Enlightenment philosophy and political theory. But I can’t say if that does or should
matter.
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